ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 1
1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take
into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and
Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
2. Test planning has which of the following major
tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and
identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach
(techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams
involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as
requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and
system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box
which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next
£1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is
taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall
into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
6. Which of the following has highest level of
independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
7. We use the output of the requirement analysis,
the requirement specification as the input for
writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right
product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis
most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
10. What is the expected result for each of the
following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program,
after modification, to discover any defects
introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes
in the software being tested or in another
related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function
together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response
times
14. Consider the above state transition diagram of
a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state
transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100%
branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100%
statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100%
decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100%
branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100%
decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes
the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
18. Match every stage of the software Development
Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level
design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
19. Which of the following is not phase of the
Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and
Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a
black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined
objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed
objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process
improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools
include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
24. Which of the following is true about White and
Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are
White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow
are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing
are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing
and Decision Table are White Box Testing
Techniques.
25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are
unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage
and Branch Coverage :-Read
P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage
:-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
29. The structure of an incident report is covered
in the Standard for Software Test
Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test
Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to
identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the
information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what
degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal
workings of
the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code
to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the
path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the
application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test
Closure Activities?i.
Checking which planned deliverables
have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best
definition for Testing :-a) The goal /
purpose of testing is
to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is
defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does
what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding
defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of
incremental testing approach?a)
Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of
code, functionality or
risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability
measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or
lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the
Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case
Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment
preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density,
defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of
the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should
consider the context :-i.
Risk of Failure of the Project,
hazards to the product and risks of product
failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the
proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and
the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled
library containing all the configurations items
is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers :
1 c
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 c
15 c
16 d
17 a
18 d
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 a
23 a
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 b
29 d
30
a
31
a
32
c
33
d
34
b
35
c
36
b
37
b
38
b
39
b
40
a
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 2
1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation
from the specific or expected behavior, this is
called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains
all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4. Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range
between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which
of the following inputs might be a result of designing
tests for only valid equivalence classes and
valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6. Consider the following statements about early test
design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to
fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance
and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for
that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for
that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration
management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the
integration strategy for integration testing in
the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and
networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a
small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in
a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11. Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author
of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12. Given the following code, which is true about the
minimum number of test cases required for
full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13. Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14. Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15. Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then
switch the the television on and watch the
program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the
crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool
is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
17. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be
used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19. Which of the following is NOT a black box
technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20. Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21. Given the following types of tool, which tools
would typically be used by developers and which
by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii
and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v
and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v
and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii
and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii
and vi
22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23. Which of the following statements about the
component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement
technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement
technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test
design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test
design technique
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written
documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source)
documents
25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be
able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26. The difference between re-testing and regression
testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks
for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression
testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing
is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses
the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by
independent testers
27. Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28. Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29. Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of
incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31. What information need not be included in a test
incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32. Which expression best matches the following
characteristics or review processes:1.
led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33. Which of the following is NOT part of system
testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from
the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to
files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as
response times
35. The standard that gives definitions of testing
terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional
design
e) Can never be determined
37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test
Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of
testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39. Which of the following is not part of performance
testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40. Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
Answers:
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 E
30 D
31 A
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 3
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before
releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as
during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression
test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews,
inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production
environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers
should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for
fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is
discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what
the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests,
etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or
requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design
and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the
software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production
or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not
form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it
contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better
development methods, will affect the time
needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system
testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be
white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very
confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what
testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language
,how many tests are required to achieve
100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many
tests are required to achieve 100%
branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Which of the following is NOT a type of
non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to
detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to
testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test
standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23. which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration
strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design
technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost
likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted,
values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence
partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which
of the following covers the MOST boundary
values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
31. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900
and 2004. The boundary values for testing
this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
32. Which one of the following are non-functional
testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
33. Which of the following tools would be involved in
the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
34. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
35. Which of the following is not a quality
characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
36. To test a function, the programmer has to write a
_________, which calls the function to be
tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
37. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the
possible sequences of statements (paths) for
the following program fragment? …………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
38. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
39. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
40. Statement Coverage will not check for the
following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
Answers:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
31.c
32.d
33.c
34.b
35.c
36.b
37.c
38.a
39.a
40.a
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 4
1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily
because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most
from the use of test tools providing test capture
and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also
achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also
achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will
generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will
generally detect more faults than one
that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the
specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure
that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and
all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage
criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items
exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user
requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults
found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test
completion criteria.
8. In prioritising what to test, the most important
objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9. Given the following sets of test management terms
(v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which
one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10. Which one of the following statements about system
testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11. Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process
improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the
software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14. Which of the following is not described in a unit
test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different
severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the
removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to
incorrect behaviour.
16. Which one of the following statements, about
capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing
likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output
may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome
of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under
test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20. Which of the following characterises the cost of
faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and
the most expensive to fix in the latest
test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most
expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but
the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early
development phases, they are cheapest to fix
then.
21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an
objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part
of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24. Which of these activities provides the biggest
potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25. Which of the following is NOT a white box
technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next
£1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid
Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28. An important benefit of code inspections is that
they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment
is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29. Which of the following is the best source of
Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test
scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough
and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is
lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no
leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are
during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is
lead by a trained moderator.
31. Which one of the following describes the major
benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34. Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer
program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next
£1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the
same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37. The most important thing about early test design is
that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38. Which of the following statements about reviews is
true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements
specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test
plans.
39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40. A configuration management system would NOT
normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component
source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Answers:
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 5
1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900
and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2. Which one of the following are non-functional
testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
3. Which of the following tools would be involved in
the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
5. Which of the following is not a quality
characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a
_________, which calls the function to be tested
and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input
and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty
testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what
point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the
possible sequences of statements (paths) for
the following program fragment? Assume that the two
conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and
special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the
following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 6
1. Which of the following is a major task of test
planning?
A Determining the test approach.
B Preparing test specifications.
C Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D Measuring and analyzing results.
2. Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN
true?
A Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B Component testing searches for defects in programs that are
separately testable.
C Component testing is an important part of user acceptance
testing.
D Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions
between software and
hardware components.
3. In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall
into three
DIFFERENT
equivalence classes?
A £4000; £5000; £5500.
B £32001; £34000; £36500.
C £28000; £28001; £32001.
D £4000; £4200; £5600.
4. Which of the following will NOT be detected by
static analysis?
A Parameter type mismatches.
B Errors in requirements.
C Undeclared variables.
D Uncalled functions.
5. Which of the following test activities can be
automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
A i, iii, iv.
B i, ii, iii.
C ii, iv, v.
D ii, iii, v.
6.
Which of the following is an
objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a
testing tool?
A Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B Complete the testing of a key project.
C Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
7. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B To communicate how testing will be performed.
C To produce a test schedule.
D To produce a work breakdown structure.
8. In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you
expect the bulk of the test
design work to be begun?
A After the software or system has been produced.
B During development.
C As early as possible.
D During requirements analysis.
9. What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
A i, iii.
B ii, iii, iv.
C ii, iv.
D i, ii.
10. Given the following decision table
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
UK resident? False True True True
Age between 18 - 55? Don’t care False True True
Smoker? Don’t care Don’t care False True
Actions
Insure client? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
What is the expected result for each of the
following test cases?
A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris
A A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
C A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.
11. Which of the following are valid objectives for
testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
A i,ii, and iii.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iv.
D i,iii and iv.
12.The process of designing test cases consists of
the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by
using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to
determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and
designing tests, what is the correct
order of these
activities?
A iii, i, iv, ii.
B iii, iv, i, ii.
C iii, ii, i, iv.
D ii, iii, i, iv.
13. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for
testers?
A To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
14. Which of the following requirements would be
tested by a functional system
test?
A The system must be able to perform its functions for an average
of 23 hours 50 mins
per
day.
B The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
15.In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a
valid Boundary Value Analysis
test case?
A £28000.
B £33501.
C £32001.
D £1500.
16.Which of the following defines the sequence in
which tests should be
executed?
A Test plan.
B Test procedure specification.
C Test case specification.
D Test design specification.
17. Given the following state transition
Which of the following series of state transitions
below will provide 0-switch
coverage?
A A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A, B, E, B, C, D.
D A, B, C, F, F, D.
18. Given the following decision table
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule
4
Conditions
Frequent Flyer Member Yes Yes No No
Class Business Economy Business
Economy
Actions
Offer upgrade to First Yes No No No
Offer upgrade to Business N/A Yes N/A No
What is the expected result for each of the
following test cases?
A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class
A A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business
class.
C A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
19. During which fundamental test process activity
do we determine if MORE
tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.
20. What is the difference between a project risk
and a product risk?
A Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or
system; product risks are
risks
that surround the
project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s
capability to deliver its
objectives;
product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C Project risks are typically related to supplier issues,
organizational factors and
technical
issues; product risks
are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work;
product risks are typically
related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical
issues.
21. Given the following specification, which of the
following values for age are in
the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be
insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20%
discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A 17, 18, 19.
B 29, 30, 31.
C 18, 29, 30.
D 17, 29, 31.
22.
Considering the following
pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of
test cases for
statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test
cases for decision
coverage
respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one
number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF
A 3, 3.
B 2, 3.
C 2, 4.
D 3, 2.
23.
Which of the following is a
benefit of independent testing?
A Code cannot be released into production until independent
testing is complete.
B Testing is isolated from development.
C Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for
quality.
D Independent testers see other and different defects, and are
unbiased.
24. Which of the following tools is most likely to
contain a comparator?
A Dynamic Analysis tool.
B Test Execution tool.
C Static Analysis tool.
D Security tool.
25. Given the following State Table:
A B C D E F
SS S1
S1 S2
S2 S3 S1
S3 ES S3
ES
Which of the following represents an INVALID state
transition?
A E from State S2.
B E from State S3.
C B from State S1.
D F from State S3.
26. Which of the following is a characteristic of
good testing in any life cycle
model?A All document reviews involve the development
team.
B Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding
test activities.
C Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is
complete.
27. Which activity in the fundamental test process
includes evaluation of the
testability of the requirements and system?A Test analysis and design.
B Test planning and control.
C Test closure.
D Test implementation and execution.
28. The following statements are used to describe
the basis for creating test
cases using either black or white box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the
components.
Which combination of the statements describes the
basis for black box
techniques?
A ii and iii.
B ii and iv.
C i and iv.
D i and iii.
29. What is typically the MOST important reason to
use risk to drive testing
efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to
finding bugs.
C Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show
value.
D Because software is inherently risky.
30.
Which of the following defines
the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the last regression test run.
31.
Which is the MOST important
advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the
person who wrote the
software.
B An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the
software works than
the
person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester may be more effective and efficient
because they are less
familiar
with the software
than the person who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects
missed by the person
who
wrote the software.
32.
For testing, which of the
options below best represents the main concerns of
Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version
controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final
acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common
repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a
responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other
and to development items.A i, iv,
vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.
33.
Which of the following would be
a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected defects.
B Total number of defects in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix all defects.
34. Which of following statements is true? Select
ALL correct options
Regression testing should be performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changedA ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.
35.
In which of the following
orders would the phases of a formal review usually
occur?
A Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
36.
Which of the following are
valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with
feedback about the problem to
enable
identification, isolation and correction as
necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester
competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the
quality of the system under test.
A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.
37. Consider the following techniques. Which are
static and which are dynamic
techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.A i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
38.
Why are static testing and
dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the
same types of defect.
B Because they have different aims and differ in the types of
defect they find.
C Because they have different aims but find the same types of
defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in
the types of defect they
find.
39.
Which of the following are
disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the
actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events
occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is
automatically stored separately from the
script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured
script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs
entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may
need to debug the script if it
doesn’t play
correctly.A i,
iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.
40.
Which of the following is
determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for regression testing.
Answers
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. A
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 7
1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the
people at client own locations
(1M)
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues,
problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve
input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the
developing organization’s site
(1M)
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual
workbenches to produce
the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection
is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to
management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy
it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to
ensure that standards are met
(2M)
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the
Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing
information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which
should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of
(2M)
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in
functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be
traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity,
considering L as edges or links, N as
nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information
system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal
review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information
or operational profiles uses
the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is
six weeks behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months
away. The project is not allowed
to slip the delivery date or compromise on the
quality standards established for
this product. Which of the following actions would
bring this project back on
schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been
implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work
is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current
software process improvement
meeting. Which of the following techniques should
the facilitator use to bring
other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed
to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s
opinion, and ask for
someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not
have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in
order to encourage
others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance
centers are examples of which
of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Answers:
1
B
2
C
3
A
4
B
5
A
6
C
7
B
8
C
9
C
10
D
11
D
12
B
13
B
14
A
15
D
16
A
17
D
18
A
19
C
20
D
21
C
22
D
23
D
24
A
25
B
26
D
27
A
28
C
29 D
30 A
31 B
32 B
33
C
34
C
35
A
36
B
37
A
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 8
1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
2. From the below given choices, which one is the
‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system
divided by the size of the
component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by that
test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system
divided by the number
of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by the
size of the system
4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester
determines that all scores
from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores
below 90 will not. This analysis
is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
7. All of the following might be done during unit
testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walk-through
D. Compiler based testing
8. What is the concept of introducing a small change
to the program and having
the effects of that change show up in some test?
A. Introducing mutations
B. Performance testing
C. A mutation error
D. Debugging a program
9. Which of the following characteristics is
primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other
applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different
users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different
platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
10. Which of the following software change
management activities is most vital to
assessing the impact of proposed software
modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control
11. Which of the following statements is true about
a software verification and
validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a
software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development
activities.
A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
12. Which of the following is a requirement of an
effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV
13. A test manager wants to use the resources
available for the automated testing
of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
14. A project manager has been transferred to a
major software development
project that is in the implementation phase. The
highest priority for this project
manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan.
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the
manager’ s management
style.
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15. Change X requires a higher level of authority
than Change Y in which of the
following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications
during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group
Documents requested by
customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single
user
16. Which of the following functions is typically
supported by a software quality
information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II &
IV
17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds
a bug and assigned it to
developer. But developer rejects the same, saying
that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’
should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the
developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and
check the reproducibility
18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with
the actual behavior of the
running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
19. A type of integration testing in which software
elements, hardware elements,
or both are combined all at once into a component or
an overall system, rather
than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have
more, fewer or different levels of
development and testing, depending on the project
and the software product. For
example, there may be component integration testing
after component testing,
and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and
output coverage? It can be
applied to human input, input via interfaces to a
system, or interface parameters
in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
22. There is one application, which runs on a single
terminal. There is another
application that works on multiple terminals. What
are the test techniques you
will use on the second application that you would
not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
23. You are the test manager and you are about the
start the system testing. The
developer team says that due to change in
requirements they will be able to
deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days
after the due date. You can
not change the resources(work hours, test tools,
etc.) What steps you will take to
be able to finish the testing in time. (
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so
that testing activity will
be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip
going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on
critical functionality
testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
25. Testing of software used to convert data from
existing systems for use in
replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing
26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level
through the layers of a test
documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and
major objectives of
the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable
phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to
conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under
test
30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The
system data model is very
large with many attributes and there are a lot of
inter dependencies with in the
fields. What steps would you use to test the system
and also what are the efforts
of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program
means stage containment
of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter
dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the
functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system
as a whole
31. Change request should be submitted through
development or program
management. A change request must be written and
should include the following
criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and
IV
32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such
as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements
information available that
will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct
behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system
administration support
ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the
testing process to allow
testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites
available in forms that
testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.
33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by
schedule and budget risks” This
statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
34. The bug tracking system will need to capture
these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and
IV
35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing
a test project is that so
many dependencies converge at test execution. One
missing configuration file or
hard ware device can render all your test results
meaning less. You can end up
with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for
days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on
the results to the
system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3
business days prior to
starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and
release management
control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
Answers:
1
(A) 20 (B)
2
(C) 21 (D)
3
(A) 22 (C)
4
(C) 23 (C)
5
(B) 24 (B)
6
(A) 25 (B)
7
(B) 26 (D)
8
(A) 27 (B)
9
(A) 28 (A)
10
(C) 29 (C)
11
(C) 30 (A)
12
(A) 31 (D)
13
(B) 32 (A)
14
(B) 33 (D)
15
(D) 34 (B)
16
(C) 35 (A)
17
(D) 36 (D)
18
(B) 37 (A)
19
(B)
*****************************************************************************
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 9
1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the
following except (Testing
artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
2. Which of the following is not decided in the
test-planning phase? (Testing
artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews
than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface
specifications.
E.All of the above.
4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have
the same objective –
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this
time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
7. What are the 2 major components taken into
consideration with risk analysis?
(Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but
still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the
TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed
through the FALSE
branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle
specific data values,
rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to
execute.
9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness
review? (Performing
Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify
extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be
tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11. What are the key features to be concentrated
upon when doing a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
12. What can be done if requirements are changing
continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how
requirements might change so that alternate test plans and
strategies
can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements
into the
project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13. The selection of test cases for regression
testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the
system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve
these numbers,
people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We
don't know how to
measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and
so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong
conclusions.
D. All of the above.
15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test
planning process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
16. According to the lecture, there are several
risks of managing your project's
schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include
(choose one or more of the
following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find
bugs than preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is
ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate
achieved doesn't
alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not
find bugs, or to not
report bugs.
D. All of the above
17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as
(test planning process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.
19. Important consequences of the impossibility of
complete testing are (Choose
one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it
easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be
required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high
importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software
Testing process (Tester’s
Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement
21. In the MASPAR case study:A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of
code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch
coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the
function with almost
every input value to find its two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.
22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the
program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF
statements in the program
23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify
extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be
tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
25. Which is the best definition of complete
testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of
branches in the
program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
26. What is the concept of introducing a small
change to the program and having
the
effects of that change show up in some test?
(Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
Answers:
1 - C
2 - D
3 - E
4 - D
5 - A
6 - A
7 - C
8 - C
9 - A
10 - A
11 - D
12 - C
13 - D
14 - A
15 - B
16 - D
17 - E
18 - C
19 - D
20 - C
21 - C
22 - B
23 - A
24 - A
25 - D
26 – E
Source
by:- istqbexamcertification
0 comments:
Post a Comment